Re: "feels good" is inherently meaningful

From: Metaqualia (
Date: Fri Jul 02 2004 - 21:23:43 MDT

> Whether feelings are inherently (i.e. aside from being physical processes)
> relevant for an arbitrary morality depends on the morality.

no because in the dictionary definition you quoted the ideas of right and
wrong are referenced, and right and wrong refer to good and evil, which in
the end only have meaning if qualia exist.


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