Re: "feels good" is inherently meaningful

From: Randall Randall (
Date: Fri Jul 02 2004 - 21:41:42 MDT

On Jul 2, 2004, at 11:23 PM, Metaqualia wrote:

>> Whether feelings are inherently (i.e. aside from being physical
>> processes)
>> relevant for an arbitrary morality depends on the morality.
> no because in the dictionary definition you quoted the ideas of right
> and
> wrong are referenced, and right and wrong refer to good and evil,
> which in
> the end only have meaning if qualia exist.

Um, that's just a restatement of your position.

Do you have some argument for why right and wrong
can't be based on something other than one's feelings
about it?

Randall Randall <>
Property law should use #'EQ , not #'EQUAL .

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