From: Stathis Papaioannou (stathisp@gmail.com)
Date: Mon Mar 05 2007 - 04:08:34 MST
Oops, here's the link:
On 3/5/07, Stathis Papaioannou <stathisp@gmail.com> wrote:
>
>
>
> On 3/5/07, Mohsen Ravanbakhsh <ravanbakhsh@gmail.com> wrote:
>
> A brief article by Dan Dennett:
> > http://www.time.com/time/magazine/article/0,9171,1580363,00.html
> >
> > If there's no way to distinguish them objectively, does it mean they're
> > the same subjectively?
> > If they're not the same that way, what is the nature of that
> > distinguishing quality?
>
>
> See this recent post by Jesse Mazer on the subject of David Chalmer's
> "fading qualia" argument. I should emphasise that my response about the
> possibility of being deluded into not noticing that the qualia were fading
> is not really very plausible, being in actual clinical cases due to specific
> neurological defects rather than general loss of brain function.
>
> Stathis Papaioannou
>
>
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