From: Stathis Papaioannou (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Mon Mar 05 2007 - 04:07:16 MST
On 3/5/07, Mohsen Ravanbakhsh <email@example.com> wrote:
A brief article by Dan Dennett:
> If there's no way to distinguish them objectively, does it mean they're
> the same subjectively?
> If they're not the same that way, what is the nature of that
> distinguishing quality?
See this recent post by Jesse Mazer on the subject of David Chalmer's
"fading qualia" argument. I should emphasise that my response about the
possibility of being deluded into not noticing that the qualia were fading
is not really very plausible, being in actual clinical cases due to specific
neurological defects rather than general loss of brain function.
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