From: Michael Vassar (michaelvassar@hotmail.com)
Date: Fri Sep 16 2005 - 11:00:13 MDT
Does anyone know of a plausible explanation for the general dominance of
statistical inference over Bayesian probablistic inference, both presently
and historically?
This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.5 : Wed Jul 17 2013 - 04:00:52 MDT