From: Rui Ferreira (ruiandreferreira@gmail.com)
Date: Mon Jan 05 2009 - 22:42:50 MST
> K(Y), but you can have a program which (exactly) simulates many programs of
> high complexity without being complex itself (e.g. AIXItl).
But it wouldn't be possible to know which one of the programs being
simulated by X is Y, right?
On Tue, Jan 6, 2009 at 5:31 AM, Peter de Blanc <peter@spaceandgames.com> wrote:
> Rui Ferreira wrote:
>>
>> It's subtle. When X simulates Y and K(X) < K(Y), you can't ask X what
>> would Y output for a certain input. In your example, if you wanted X
>> to predict the output of Y, it would have to be coded in X that Y is
>> the nth program generated and, on that case, K(Y) would be equal (or
>> less than) K(X).
>>
>> Anyway, as you said, it's perfectly possible that X "simulates" Y and
>> K(X) < K(Y). Was this the point you were trying to make about the
>> difference of simulation and "actual computation", Peter?
>
> No, that isn't the point I was trying to make. I am talking about "actual
> computation."
>
> I agree with you that if X simulates Y _and does nothing else_, then K(X) >=
> K(Y), but you can have a program which (exactly) simulates many programs of
> high complexity without being complex itself (e.g. AIXItl).
>
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