# Re: Is a Person One or Many?

From: Stathis Papaioannou (stathisp@gmail.com)
Date: Mon Mar 10 2008 - 05:14:13 MDT

On 10/03/2008, Lee Corbin <lcorbin@rawbw.com> wrote:

> > - You are offered two choices:
> > (a) 100 copies of you are made in London and one copy is made in
> > Paris. The Paris copy is tortured while the London copies are not
> > tortured.
> > (b) 100 copies of you are made in London and one copy is made in
> > Paris. After an hour, the 100 copies in London are tortured while the
> > copy in Paris is duplicated 100,000 times and none of these copies are
> > tortured.
> > Is your subjective probability of being tortured at the moment of the
> > original copying greater in (a) or (b)?
>
>
> It's greater in (a), because the fraction of your runtime in the multiverse
> where you're being tortured is smaller. (By the same logic used to solve
> Eliezer's puzzle.)

Yes, that's what I thought you'd say. But see my answer to Mike
Dougherty explaining how your subjective probability of being tortured
could be greater in (b). Also, I don't see why you say anticipation
and subjective probability are not necessarily related.

```--
Stathis Papaioannou
```

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