From: Psy Kosh (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Thu May 25 2006 - 20:49:41 MDT
On the topic of the math of supperationality, a possibly stupid
question, but would Godel's results have any impact?
What I mean is, from what I understand, in some systems, if you even
internally take as an explicit axiom that the system is consistent,
that may break the system.
But doesn't superrationality kind of work by explicitly stating
consistancy of rationality and going to consequences of that? ie, the
basic examples work by saying "If all involved are maximally rational,
then all of us will come to the same conclusion, therefore...", but
that's basically an assertion of consistancy, and using that directly,
while it seems reasonable, I'm wondering if there may be some sneaky
Godelian "trap" lurking somewhere along the line?
Or am I way way off on this?
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