Re: The influence of skeptics [WAS Re: no more lottery talk]

From: Jeff Medina (analyticphilosophy@gmail.com)
Date: Mon Jan 02 2006 - 11:42:14 MST


On 1/2/06, BillK <pharos@gmail.com> wrote:
> As Michael Shermer has commented:
> "But wouldn't that mean that this claim is ultimately nonfalsifiable?
> If both positive and negative results are interpreted as supporting a
> theory, how can we test its validity?
> Skepticism is the default position because the burden of proof is on
> the believer, not the skeptic."

It isn't that positive and negative (i.e., any) results are
interpreted as support. Richard is claiming specifically that:

- Believers in such experiments have consistently positive results
- Skeptics in such experiments have consistently negative results

Chance would imply a lack of correlation between one's belief and
one's results; there should be positive and negative variance in equal
amounts for the believers and the skeptics, but there aren't,
apparently.

Not that I support his take on psi. But there is a critical
distinction to be made between the object of your criticism and the
claim Richard's making, no matter what the explanation of these
experiments.

--
Jeff Medina
http://www.painfullyclear.com/
Community Director
Singularity Institute for Artificial Intelligence
http://www.intelligence.org/
Relationships & Community Fellow
Institute for Ethics & Emerging Technologies
http://www.ieet.org/
School of Philosophy, Birkbeck, University of London
http://www.bbk.ac.uk/phil/


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