From: Christian Szegedy (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Wed Aug 25 2004 - 04:09:33 MDT
Tomaz Kristan wrote:
>The problem arises after infinitely many such shakes.
No. The problem arises while defining the notion "after infinitely"
The infinite iterate of a function can be defined under certain
circumstances, but there is no general definition of this notion.
("Can be defined" means that one uses the axioms to define
a new function in a way that it coincides with the intuition of the
mathematician. It does not means that it conforms to some
absolute general principle of "infinite iteration".)
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